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  • To be honest I wasn't familiar with Wigner's friend experiment until I read this article. And I kind of get the feeling that I'm missing something. Because when I read the experiment and I read the interpretation of the experiment I don't quite see where the violation is occurring.

    It sounds like the experiment and observer F are in superposition and appear that way to observer W. But observer F considers the experiment to be measured. That seems consistent with my view of QM and objective reality. I would have been more surprised if observer F had measured outcome 0 and observer W had measured outcome 1. But that doesn't seem to be what MIT TR are reporting.

    So I suppose my answer to your question would be no. I don't see this causing issues with QC. And I don't think this implies that there can't be objective reality either. At least not in the sense that is relevant to our regular classical lives.

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